The mark of major prophetic figures in the Bible like Elijah, Elisha, Moses, King David, Samson and others perform incredible feats and miracles. Thus in the Qur’an itself we see that many do not believe the prophetic claims of Mohammed, and demand signs of him. Without being uncharitable, the excuses do come across as being a bit lame. Subsequently various traditions have grown up around Muhammed ascribing numerous “miracles” to him, enough to fill several volumes of books. If the Qur’an had been silent on the matter it would have been one issue.
But not only is the Qur’an completely naïve of any miraculous deeds of Muhammed, it actively denies the possibility of there being any. The entire claim of authenticity is based on Muhammed being a “good example” for Muslims, and the literary excellence of the Qur’an. Not only do we not find assertions in the Qur’an that Muhammed performs miracles, we do not even find a suggestion of it. On the contrary, we will see, there are about 8 or nine reasons given by the Qur’an itself as to why Muhammed is not given any signs to perform by Allah. This sort of evidence is quite overwhelming.
But here are the “excuses”, so many that I enumerate them by category.
Headings
Allah did not give Muhammed miracles because:
You killed the Miracle-working Prophets of the past
(Q 3:183) “To those that declare: ‘God has commanded to believe in no apostle unless he brings down fire to consume an offering,’ say ‘Other apostles before me have come to you with veritable signs and worked that miracle that you asked for. Why did you slay them, if what you say be true?’”
Well, they would not believe anyway
“they solemnly swear by God that if a sign be given them they would believe in it. Say: ‘Signs are only vouchsafed by God.’ And how can you tell that if a sign be given them they will indeed believe in it?”” (Q 6:109)
“If we sent the angels down to them, and caused the dead to speak with them, and ranged all things in front of them, they would still not believe, unless God willed otherwise, but most of them are ignorant men” (Q 6:111)
This is followed later on in the chapter by a verse that states “when we send a sign”, which Abdel Haleem translates “revelation” since it is the same word and in the context that the people are still asking for a miracle in the same verse, it cannot be that they have also been given on in the same, in addition to what has already been said in the foregoing:
(Q 6:124) “When a sign/revelation (ayah) is given to them they say ‘We will not believe it unless we are given that which God’s apostles have been given’ But God knows best whom to entrust with His message”.
(Q 52:44) “If they saw a part of heaven falling down, they would still say ‘it is but a mass of clouds!”
Allah will not give any signs until the Last Moment
Q 6:158) – Are they waiting for the angels or your Lord to come down to them, or for a sign from your Lord to be given them? On the day that a sign from your Lord is given them, faith shall not avail the soul that had no faith before or did not put its faith to good uses.
This either means that a sign will be given to each person at the time of his death, when of course a reprobate person will see eternity unfold and their own damnation. In any case it would be absurd for Muhammed to be going around giving persons signs only at the time of their death, this is a sign directly of God, and the unfolding of Eternity to the Soul. Either that or this is referring to the Last Day and the Common Judgement of the whole world, which again, is too late for the 7th century claim.
Because Allah does not guide the Ignorant
(Q 13:27) ”The unbelievers ask: ‘Why has no sign been sent down to him by his Lord?’ Say: ‘God leaves in error whom He will,..’.
(Q 6:37) ‘Why has no sign been sent down to him from his Lord? Say: ‘’God is well able to send down a sign.’ But most of them are ignorant men.“
In the above sequence once again, there seems to be an active denial to give Muhammed any sign. This is remarkable, because it seems as though Muhammed would really desire some miracle be given him so that the people might be impressed. Reading between the lines, a skeptic might consider that such a verse might have been a response to Muhammed’s inner circle asking whether he could not perform any miracle so as to stave off people’s ridicule and make their task of gaining followers easier. I use the Sahih International translation here:
“And if their evasion is difficult for you, then if you are able to seek a tunnel into the earth or a stairway into the sky to bring them a sign, [then do so]. But if Allah had willed, He would have united them upon guidance. So never be of the ignorant. Only those who hear will respond. But the dead – Allah will resurrect them; then to Him they will be returned. And they say, “Why has a sign not been sent down to him from his Lord?” Say, “Indeed, Allah is Able to send down a sign, but most of them do not know.” (Q 6:35-37)
He is a “Warner”, giving Written Signs only
“Neither have you read before this, nor have you transcribed one with your right hand. Had you done either, the unbelievers might have doubted. But to those who are endowed with knowledge it is an undoubted sign. Only the wrongdoers deny our signs. They ask: ‘Why have no signs been sent down to him by his Lord?’ Say: Signs are in the hands of God. My mission is ONLY to give plain warning.’ Is it not ENOUGH for them that we have revealed this book for their instruction? Surely in this there is a blessing and an admonition for true believers.” (Q 29:49,50)
This again is a “time factor”. Muhammad is stating he is “only a warner”. The use of “only” here seems to imply that he will never perform a sign. Should he then go on to perform a sign then he would cease to “only be a warner”. “Signs are in the hand of God“, as Muhammed says, they are for God to display, not him. Further Allah says that the written revelation is “ENOUGH”. That seems to indicate Allah feels there is no need for signs anymore either, unlike in the past.
“Then, it may be that you will give up part of what is revealed to you and your breast will become straitened by it because they say: Why has not a treasure been sent down upon him or an angel come with him? You are only a warner; and Allah is custodian over all things.” (Q 11:12)
Consider the importance of this verse in which the people list a number of possibilities for miracles that they have not seen Muhammed perform and the author of the author of the Qur’an does not give any pushback, rather seems accepting of it. For example, “water miracles”, “ascending to Heaven”, causing angels to appear, all of which are later claimed in the hadith literature in some form, receive a general denial here.
“They say, ‘We will not believe for you [Muhammad] until you make a spring gush out of the ground for us; or until you have a garden of date palms and vines, and make rivers pour through them; or make the sky fall on us in pieces, as you claimed will happen; or bring God and the angels before us face to face; or have a house made of gold; or ascend into the sky- even then, we will not believe in your ascension until you send a real book down for us to read.’ Say, ‘Glory be to my Lord! Am I anything but a mortal, a messenger?’” (Q 17:90-93)
Here the text seemingly asserts it is not necessary that all messengers have miracles, rather that they warn etc.:
“we send messengers only to give good news and to warn, so for those who believe and do good deeds there will be no fear, nor will they grieve” (Q 6:48)
No angelic sign is given
“‘Why has an angel not been sent down on him?’ they say; yet had We sent down an angel, the matter would have been determined, and then no respite would be given them. And had We made him an angel, yet assuredly We would have made him a man, and confused for them the thing which they themselves are confusing.” (Q 6:8,9)
again:
“Even if We sent the angels down to them, and the dead spoke to them, and We gathered all things right in front of them, they still would not believe, unless God so willed, but most of them are ignorant [of this].” (Q 6:111)
Nobody witnessed the angel that appeared to Muhammed:
(Q 25:6) fables of the ancients he has written: They are dictated to him morning and evening…why has no angel been sent down with him to give warning…”
Here Allah is imploring the people to believe what Muhammed is telling them about seeing an angel:
(Q 53:11,12) “His own heart did not deny his vision. How can you then, question what he sees?”
You have a “Poetic Challenge” Instead
Challenges to the Qur’an’s authenticity are repeatedly made and met not with spectacular signs, rather with the “poetic challenge”:
(Q 10:38,39) If they say ‘He invented it himself’, say, ‘Bring me one chapter like it. Call on whom you may besides God to help you, if what you say be true!’ Indeed they disbelieve what they cannot grasp, for they have not seen it’s prophecy fulfilled (What prophecy?)
(Q 11:13) “If they say “He has invented it himself,” say to them: ‘Produce ten invented chapters like it. Call on whom you will among your idols if what you say be true. But if they fail you, know that it is revealed by God’s knowledge…”
(Q 28:49) Say:’ Bring down from God a scripture that is a better guide than there and I will follow it, if what you say be true. If they make no answer, know that they are led by their desires.
Not that the previous wager of ‘Bring me one chapter like it’ has been changed to 10 chapters! These two suras are actually in chronologic sequence, both being late Meccan. I can just envisage some poor Arab actually managing to scribble a verse in response to the first challenge, causing an increase in the stakes! The obvious counter to this is that verses composed by godless or pagan poets and writers like Tennyson, Wallace, Kipling, and orientals like Buddha, Vivekananda and others would seriously challenge the Qur’an for style and beauty, and in the English-speaking world, there would be no doubt as to who would win.
Jesus and even Maryam’s signs are mentioned?
the Quran documents the miracles of Jesus. So it has no problems documenting miracles for a prophet. That means if Muhammed had miracles there would be no problem in saying so. The whole tone of the Quran is signs signs signs cant you see our signs. So why on earth would it leave out the main man’s signs, meaning Muhammed?
Here is a sign given to Mary (apart from the virgin birth). Mary is a very young girl with no possible source of income, yet she is always “provisioned”, we are told:
“Her Lord received the child with gracious favour, and by His goodness she grew up comely, Zachariah taking charge of her. Whenever Zachariah went in to her in the Sanctuary, he found her provisioned. ‘Mary,’ he said, ‘how comes this to thee?’ ‘From God,’ she said. Truly God provisions whomsoever He will without reckoning.” (Q 3:37)
What are the signs Allah does give?
Destruction of previous nations
(Q 32:26) Do they not know how many generations we have destroyed before them? They walk among their ruined dwellings. Surely in this there are conspicuous signs. Have they no ears to hear with?
Creation itself (this is the favourite)
“Do they not see what is behind them and before them in heaven and earth? If we will, We can cause the earth to cave in before their feet or let fragments of the sky fall upon them, Surely there is a sign in this for every penitent man.” (Q 34:9)
(Q 50:4) Yet they denied the truth when it was preached to them and now they are perplexed. Have they never observed the sky above them, and marked how We built it up and furnished it with ornaments, leaving no crack in it’s expanse…a lesson and admonishment to penitent men.”
(Q 45:13) He has subjected to you what the heavens and the earth contain; all is for Him. Surely there are signs in this for thinking men.
Sleep?
I think what Muslims say here is that the soul of man returns to Allah in sleep, then if Allah so wishes, he returns it back:
(Q 39:42) Allah takes away men’s souls upon their death, and the souls of the living during their sleep. Those that are doomed he keeps with him, and restores the others for a time ordained. Surely there are signs in this for thinking men.
Is Muhammad accused of sorcery for his miracles?
Many accusations are levelled against Muhammad in the Qur’an instead, and so we would expect that were he really performing signs, then sorcery or fraud would be among those accusations (from those who rejected those miracles). However the only time that Muhammad is accused of sorcery is with relation to his verses:
“And even if We had sent down to you, [O Muhammad], a written scripture on a page and they touched it with their hands, the disbelievers would say, “This is not but obvious sorcery.” (Q 6:7)
Remember that the words of the Qur’an are called signs. We see the idea that the Qur’an is magic words elsewhere.
And when Our verses (signs) are recited to them as clear evidences, those who disbelieve say of the truth when it has come to them, “This is obvious magic.” (Qur’an 46:7)
And he said, “This is merely retold magic” (Qur’an 74:24)
Muhammad is called a magician because he is reciting words just as magicians have their special words they recite not because he is doing miracles.
Further, in contrast, Moses and Jesus are both accused of sorcery specifically in relation to their miracles (10:76,77 for Musa, 5:110 for Eisa)
This is a general statement about the people, clearly not in a praticular context of Muhammed having said or done anything. Again, “signs” is used for verses too, as we have seen above:
“and when they see a sign would scoff and say “this is not but manifest sorcery. What, when we are dead and become dust and bones, shall we indeed be raised up?” (Q 37:14-16, Arberry)
A Time Factor Loophole?
The only way in which a Muslim can try to get around the Qur’ans repeated iterations that Mohammed is to be miracle-less, is to try to point out that it does not explicitly state that Muhammed will “never” perform miracles. Therefore it is legitimate for the Hadith to pitch in with a numerous abundance of miraculous claims based on this supposed lack of clarity. At this stage if the sheer weight of evidence to the contrary is still only meeting with denials, I would ask:
“The Qur’an is a holy book which denies that Muhammed performs any miracles, yes or no?”
And although I hate being asked yes/no questions, I feel it brings clarity here, because the answer is clearly “yes” from the verses we have seen. Therefore any literature that claims otherwise is adding a significant aspect to Muhammed that is denied in the Qur’an. That is a sufficient contradiction. Further, it is not entirely correct to state that there is not permanence to the denial either. We have seen this in our analysis of verses 29:49 and 6:158, and so in this case there is a permanence of the denial as well.
Lastly, can the claim be made that the verses were given in the early part of Muhammed’s career and therefore could be irrelevant? My brief analysis of the timing of these verses shows that only Surah 3 is in the Medinan period, if we are going by Noldeke’s chronology of all of the above verses. However the chronology of the verses in the Quran is conjectural and hotly debated, and there is no agreement on the original sequence. Further to simply brush aside what had been revealed earlier is not undermine the significance of the “revelations” themselves which are purportedly being sent by God himself. Lastly, it is not as though there is a “later” rescinding of what has previously been said either and in such a case it is reasonable that what has been said earlier should stand, and nor do the later verses record any miracles.
Claims of Miracles/ Verses pertaining to Miracles
These are some of the miracles that are claimed to be references in the Qur’an itself. On examination the evidence for that is pretty thin, and the “reference” seems more “Midrashic”, see for yourself:
A Moon Miracle?
There is no reference to a single miracle performed by Muhammed in the Qur’an. It seems that some Muslims commentators have tried to stake a miraculous claim based upon Surah 54:1-2.
Surah 54:1 refers to Judgement Day
The chief contender for a reference in the Qur’an to a miracle of Muhammad is, we are told, the Moon-splitting miracle. When we look at the verse itself (54:1) at face value, we do not see anyone performing a miracle here. It speaks of some of the signs that will be seen on Judgement Day- the “hour is nigh and the Moon is split”.
It is clear that the straight reading of this verse is apocalyptic, because one would expect this sort of planetary destruction in an end-of-the-world scenario. This “Hour” is always used in relation to Judgement Day in every other usage in the Qur’an. It could not possibly be referring to sometime around the time of Muhammad since obviously Judgement Day is not here yet, and further Muhammad himself admits in a well-known hadith that he does not know when the Hour is to come.
The moon splitting and the hour being nigh are two halves of the same sentence, so a literal reading of the text would imply a relation between the two.
It is hard to see why a single sentence would be referring to two literally different tenses: “the hour is nigh (sometime in the distant future, at least 1400 years and counting) and the moon has split (today)…”. Rather a straight reading of verse 54:1 would be “(prophetically at a distant future time) the hour is imminent, and the moon has split (as a sign of the imminence of the hour)…”
The other possible explanation is that these persons that are rejecting the signs are those of the previous nations, since the narrative immediately moves into the manner in which the people of Noah and of Ad also rejected Allah’s messengers and were destroyed (v.9,18). That would seem to cover all the possible Islamic contexts for this passages.
This is the verse:
“The Hour has drawn nigh: the moon is split. Yet if they see a sign they turn away, and they say ‘A continuous sorcery!’ They have cried lies, and followed their caprices; but every matter is settled.” (Q 54:1-3)
The verse is castigating those who even on seeing the signs in the Heavens of the end-times do not take heed. It is obviously only on Judgement Day that “every matter is settled” (v.3- Abdel Haleem writes that this literally translates as “fixed”)
Regarding the tense of the verse
I’ve seen it argued that the tense of the event is in the past (perfect tense). However this is common in prophecy, since in the vision itself, there is flow of time- events occurring and falling into the past within it (like watching a movie set in the future). So one might prophesy as: “(in my vision) the heavenly bodies were/had been shaken”. I heard from Samel Green that Allah speaks of the hereafter in the past tense about 500 times, although many English translations render this in the future.
Are the “disbelievers” contemporaneous to Muhammed?
Muslims who want to claim a miracle might assert that the persons present there are being admonished for not heeding Allah in spite of Muhammad’s miracle. However the admonition is addressed to detractors in general rather than to persons present at a hypothetical scene being enacted at Muhammed’s time.
Further the Hour is said to be “nigh”, so how can this be directed at people in the 7th century when the Hour was not “nigh”?
What the verse really implies is the following: Judgement Day is coming and the Moon will be split (in the future), yet when the disbelievers (in general, not at any particular time) see a sign they reject them as sorcery. Thus it is a general indictment of disbelievers. Abdel Haleem’s in the footnote to this verse in his Qur’an translation gives this interpretation too, although mentioning that some commentators had attempted to assign the event to Muhammed’s time. He references to verses 55:37 and 84:1 where there are other signs of the end times. Jesus describes similar signs in the Heavens in the Bible, as we have seen.
There is a shift from the particular event of the Last Day and the end of the World to a general criticism of disbelievers. The relation is still there of course, there’s no disconnect: “ALTHOUGH the Last Day is near, disbelievers continue in their evil ways, disregarding our signs”. That’s why it says “…when the disbelievers see A sign…”. It’s not referring to “THIS” sign necessarily but signs in general. The very next verses also entail the shift to general comments. V.3,5 are about those who reject the writings, vv. 6,7 are indeed talking about the Last Day, and v.9 has shifted to Noah and the “sign” given to him (v.15) that they rejected as an example that this is about general disbelief down the ages rather than at a particular moment. In fact the Moon being split is not necessarily a “sign” in the usual sense, it is literally the end of the world, when all the heavenly bodies will be affected, Muhammed only mentions one here, but the others are mentioned in the other verses, and of course, in the Bible, as we see below.
The rest of the surah continues a similar there, berating the previous peoples that did not accept the messengers that were sent to them and therefore courted destruction. It goes through the peoples of Noah, “Thamud”, Lot and Pharaoh, mentioning once again the specific case of the last rejecting Allah’s signs (v.41).
Is the verse even addressed to Muhammed?
It is perhaps possible to take v.6 as referring to Muhammed “so turn away from them”, although this does not imply that he his turning away from them because they did not believe that he split the Moon, rather he (if indeed this is addressed to Muhammed rather than a general direction to Muslims) is to shun disbelievers in general.
When the referent does seemingly, and for the first time shift to the disbelievers at the time of Muhammed “your disbelievers” (v.43), no mention is made of signs given to them, only that they seemingly “rejected Scripture” (v.43), threatening defeat in battle (v.44,45). Finally the focus shifts once more to the “the Hour” (v.46), and the Hellish final outcome of such people which pretty much takes us to the end of the surah (vv.47-55). Again this is similar to the manner in which current disbelief is being contrasted with disastrous outcome on the Last Day as a threat, just like in the first two verses of the surah, also providing the symmetry for the surah.
No “intentionality” on Muhammed’s part
There’s no indication that there is any “intentionality” on the part of Muhammed, that he played any active part, physical or mental in this “event”.
His is the problem in a nutshell. The author of the Qur’an does not indicate that Muhammed even lifted a finger in this supposed “event”. Nobody else in the world saw the Moon split. So we are only left with the Hadith writers.
All its elements run parallel to the NT account
The end-of-the-world appearance are in fact very similar to what is in the New Testament, and it does seem like these verses are merely echoing those, as is the manner of the Qur’an to mirror previous writings in many other places:
“But in those days, after that suffering, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken. Then they will see ‘the Son of Man coming in clouds’ with great power and glory. Then he will send out the angels, and gather his elect from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of heaven.” (Mark 13:24-27, also Matt. 24, Lk.21)
Further in the end-times once again we have the repeated refrain that the people refuse to believe in spite of the signs that they are shown. We see this in Revelations (also 9:20,21 apart from these below):
“The fourth angel poured his bowl on the sun, and it was allowed to scorch people with fire; they were scorched by the fierce heat, but they cursed the name of God, who had authority over these plagues, and they did not repent and give him glory.” (Rev.16:8,9)
The fifth angel poured his bowl on the throne of the beast, and its kingdom was plunged into darkness; people gnawed their tongues in agony and cursed the God of heaven because of their pains and sores, and they did not repent of their deeds.” (Rev.16:9-10)
Any Christian would automatically know what such signs are referring to, especially when the verse itself gives you the biggest possible indication. Only a Muslim who typically neglects the previous scriptures would read their prophet into it, lacking any scriptural referent.
Judgement Day is a Christian concept
In fact the whole concept of Judgement Day is from the New Testament, it is not seen in the Hebrew Tanakh, nor is it found in any other religion! Judgement Day is exclusive to Jesus, and indeed even Muslim tradition holds that Jesus is “returning” to Judge on that Day. See my article on other borrowed concepts in Islam.
Did anyone see it?
This brings us to the question of who really saw the Moon split. A few Hadith writers do allude to it. In fact in favor of Muhammed here the point is made by Muslims that there is no disagreement among the early companions that this event took place at the time of Muhammed as an interpretation of the verse, even if there is somewhat varying emphasis in the narrations as we will see below.
There are many narrations, they seem to chiefly come form Anas, ibn Abbas, and ibn Masud. Many of the narrations state simply that “the moon was split during the lifetime of the prophet”, not according agency for the split specifically to him. Only Anas narrates in three of these that Muhammed did show then the split moon in response to their request to show them a miracle. Then some talk of the pieces of the moon ending up over different mountains, like this one from ibn Masud:
Narrated Ibn Masud: During the lifetime of Allah’s Messenger the moon was split into two parts; one part remained over the mountain, and the other part went beyond the mountain. On that, Allah’s Messenger said, “Witness this miracle.” (Sahih Bukhari 4864, also Muslim 2800b and c)
Tirmidhi states that the pieces were even over different mountains: Narrated Muhammad bin Jubair bin Mut’im: from his father who said: “The moon was split during the time of the Messenger of Allah until it became as two sections, one above this mountain and one above that mountain. So they said: ‘Muhammad has cast a spell upon us.’ Some of them said: ‘If he could cast a spell upon us, he can not cast a spell upon all of the people.'” (Jami’at-Tirmidhi 3289)
We can see that this is even more than a split, the pieces of the Moon are flung far apart, each atop a separate mountain. It’s like a two-moon sky. Was it a silent splitting or was it a thunderous split?
The only other person in the solar system who seems to have witnessed this apart from the hadith writers is a certain Indian King from the state of Kerala. There is said to be a record of this king converting to Islam as a result and building a mosque in 629 AD resulting from it. We are told that we do not find any more reports because people were in bed at the time.
All these places should be seeing the moon at the same time. That means astronomers in Greece, Italy, Istanbul, Persian empire, all should see it. On top of that, most countries Moon can also be seen in the daytime, not just night. Due to he lensing of light by the Earth’s atmosphere, more than half the world map sees the moon in the sky, some of those places in the daytime. So if you look at the world map, mark out half of the map on either side of Mecca and all those regions should be able to see the Moon at the same time as it.
Muslims try to counter that the hour might be in the future, but the splitting is present. It’s the same sentence, I would say that obviously the two halves of the same sentence should at least have some relation to each other. I know the Qur’an is confusing but it can’t be that bad that even a sentence cannot maintain focus on a topic
A “Night Journey”?
“Glory be to Him, who carried His servant by night from the Holy Mosque to the Further Mosque the precincts of which We have blessed, that We might show him some of Our signs. He is the All-hearing, the All-seeing.” (Q 17:1)
I will elaborate later, but the first and most blatant problem with the “might journey” is that the “furthest mosque” which is claimed to be Al Aqsa in Jerusalem in the same hadith that claims it as a miracle, had not even been built until much after the time of Muhammed. As a result of this glaring problem there is genuine guardedness even among Muslims regarding its authenticity and many regard it as a dream or a vision, which is really how it is presented anyway. It is not a “sign” per se even were it true, since once again, no one but Muhammed saw it.
Duststorm, and other military “Miracles”
A Muslim posted the following list of military miracles:
This was about Battle of Badr:
“You did not slay them, but God slew them; and when thou threwest, it was not thyself that threw, but God threw, and that He might confer on the believers a fair benefit; surely God is All-hearing, All-knowing.” (Q 8:17)
Once again, this is touted as a miracle, when all that the Qur’an seems to be alluding to is that which is obviously “thrown” in battle which is weapons like spears and arrows.
Numbers of Soldiers Illusion:
“Then when your armies met, God made them appear as few in your eyes, and made you appear as few in theirs, so God may establish what He had destined. And to God ˹all˺ matters will be returned ˹for judgment˺.” – The Qur’an 8:44.
Help of Angels:
“(Remember) when you sought help of your Lord and He answered you (saying): “I will help you with a thousand of the angels.” – Qur’an 8:9.
Army doubled?:
“Indeed, there was Sign/Miracle for you in the two armies which met on the battlefield. One was fighting for the cause of God, the other a host of Unbelievers. The faithful saw with their very eyes that they were twice their own number. But God strengthens with His aid whom He will. Surely in that there was a lesson for the discerning.” – Qur’an 3:13.
I’ve heard a Muslim claim this was a miraculous doubling, but Abdul Haleem clarifies that what it means is that the faithful saw that the other army was twice in number, which is a generally accepted fact by Muslims anyway. What was remarkeable was that the Muslims won although they were outnumbered.
Invisible help?:
“Truly, God has given you victory on many battlefields, and on the day of Hunayn (battle) when you rejoiced at your great number, but it availed you naught and the earth, vast as it is, was straitened for you, then you turned back in flight. Then God did send down His Tranquillity on His Messenger, and on the believers, and sent down forces which you saw not, and punished the disbelievers.” – Qur’an 9:25-26
“Believers, remember God’s favour to you when there came against you hosts. We unleashed against them a wind and forces you could not see. God saw all that you were doing.” – Qur’an 33:9.
These miracles that are claimed for the Battle of Badr, wind and dust flying and rain in 8:11,17, these are obviously common or at least natural and not even unusually uncommon, so while they could be miraculously invoked as timely intervention, they could just as easily be described as poor conditions, like when you’re hoping for clear weather for a hike, or for a picnic and it rains or there’s snow or storm conditions.
Again supposedly about the Batte of Badr, 8:44 “made them appear as few in your eyes” makes sense, it can increase courage. But what’s the point of “made you appear as few in theirs”? This would increase the enemies’ courage, it makes no sense. And anyway these are not miracles. I can claim Israel appeared few in Hamas’ eyes and Hamas appeared few in Israel’s eyes, this could just be normal human misjudgement, what does it mean anyway. 3:13 says that their own army appeared double to them, with some extras thrown in. I’m not sure what to make of that, this could have just been describing reinforcements.
Q9:25-26 supposedly about the battle of Hunayn and again it literally says that they “could not see” the angels that were claimed to be sent in both verses (and also in 8:9), and again in 33:9 supposedly with regards to the battle of the Trench.